a company whose accounting year is the calendar year , purchased on 1st april , 2008 , machinery costing 30000 . it purchased further machinery on 1st october , 2008 , costing 20,000 and on 1st july ,2009,costing 10,000 .

on 1st jan ,2010 , one-third of the machinery which was installed on 1st april , 2008 become obselete and was sold for 3,000 .

show how the machinery account would appear in the books of the company , it being given that machinery was depreciated by fixed instalment at 10 per p.a.(make full working ) .

Machinery Account

Dr.

Cr.

Date

Particulars

Amount

(Rs)

Date

Particulars

Amount

(Rs)

2008

 

 

2008

 

 

Apr. 01

Bank A/c (M1)

30,000

Dec. 31

Depreciation A/c

 

Oct.01

Bank A/c (M2)

20,000

 

 M1(for 9 months)

2,250

 

 

 

 

 

 M2(for 3 months)

500

2,750

 

 

 

Dec. 31

Balance c/d

 

 

 

 

 

 M1

27,750

 

 

 

 

 

 M2

19,500

47,250

 

 

50,000

 

 

50,000

2009

 

 

2009

 

 

Jan. 01

Balance b/d

 

Dec. 31

Depreciation A/c

 

 

M1

27,750

 

 

M1

3,000

 

 

M2

19,500

47,250

 

M2

2,000

 

 

 

 

 

M3 (for 6 months)

500

5,500

July .01

Bank (M3)

10,000

Dec. 31

Balance c/d

 

 

 

 

 

M1

24,750*

 

 

 

 

 

M2

17,500

 

 

 

 

 

M3

9,500

51,750

 

 

57,250

 

 

57,250

2010

 

 

2010

 

 

Jan. 01

Balance b/d

 

Dec. 31

Bank A/c (Sale of 1/3rd M1)

3,000

 

M1

24,750*

 

 

Profit and Loss A/c (Loss on Sale)

5,250

 

M2

17,500

 

 

 

 

 

M3

9,500

51,750

 

Depreciation on-

 

 

 

 

 

  M1(2/3rd )**

  2,000

 

 

 

 

 

M2

2,000

 

 

 

 

 

M3

1,000

5,000

 

 

 

Dec. 31

Balance c/d

 

 

 

 

 

M1

14,500

 

 

 

 

 

M2

15,500

 

 

 

 

 

M3

8,500

38,500

 

 

51,750

 

 

51,750

 

 

 

 

 

 

         

Working Notes:

Book Value of machine sold: 30,000 X 1/3 = 10,000

Written down value of M1 on 01/01/10 : 24,750* x 1/3= 8,250

Sale Price of 1/3 M1 = 3,000

Loss on sale of 1/3rd part of M1 is 8,250 – 3,000= 5,250

Balance of M1 on 01/01/10- 24,750 x 2/3= 16,500 ( with Book Value of Rs 20,000)

**Depreciation on remaining M1 is 10% of 20,000= 2,000

  • 37
What are you looking for?