In this solution isnt (-h)^(1/2) an imaginary number???
Also how is sin(1/h) as h->0 = h as h->0???
Lim h ->0 (sinh/h) = 1 is applicable on if h tends to 0
But if h->0 (1/h) tends to infinity so this rule isnt applicable
Also in this question 0Then (-h)^(1/3) is a real number
Isnt this question a liitle incomplete???